PG NEET Ophthalmology Mcqs – Glaucoma

  1. Cells affected by glaucomatous optic neuropathy are;
    1. Amacrine cells
    2. Bipolar cells
    3. Ganglion cells
    4. Rods and cones
      1. Ans(3)
  2. In the conversion of Co2 and H2O to form carbonic acid during formation of aqueous humor, the enzyme catalyzing the reaction is;
    1. Carboxylase
    2. Carbamylase
    3. Carbonic anhydrase
    4. Carbonic dehydrogenase
      1. Ans(3)
  3. Regarding aqueous humor, which of the following statements is/are true:
    1. It is secreted at the rate of 2-3 microliter/min
    2. Secreted by ciliary processes
    3. Has less protein than plasma
    4. Provides nutrition
      1. Ans(1)
  4. Which of the following is used as self-tonometer?
    1. Diaton palpebral tonometer
    2. Rebound tonometer
    3. Perkin’s tonometer
    4. Dynamic contour tonometer
      1. Ans(2)
  5. Tonometer used in irregular cornea:
    1. Mackay – Marg tonometer
    2. Rebound tonometer
    3. Draeger tonometer
    4. Maklakov tonometer
      1. Ans(1)
  6. Tonometer with variation in applanation surface is:
    1. Maklakov tonometer
    2. Mackay – Marg tonometer
    3. Rebound tonometer
    4. Draeger tonometer
      1. Ans(1)
  7. The critical angle of air-cornea interface:
    1. 46 degrees
    2. 64 degrees
    3. 24 degrees
    4. 36 degrees
      1. Ans(1)
  8. Which of the following procedures is not done in dilated pupil/
    1. Gonioscopy
    2. Fundoscopy
    3. Laser interferometry
    4. Electroretinogram
      1. Ans(1)
  9. Schwalbe’s line is:
    1. The posterior limit of the Descemet’s membrane
    2. The posterior limit of the Bowman’s membrane
    3. The anterior limit of the Descemet’s membrane
    4. The anterior limit of the Bowman’s membrane
      1. Ans(3)
  10. Visual field abnormalities in the Bjerrum’s area are seen in:
    1. Cataract
    2. Glaucoma
    3. Keratitis
    4. Proptosis
      1. Ans(2)
  11. Tomography is used to determine:
    1. The rate of formation of aqueous
    2. The facility of aqueous outflow
    3. The IOP at different times
    4. None of the above
      1. Ans(2)
  12. True about Buphthalmos is/are
    1. Large cornea
    2. Shallow anterior chamber
    3. Haab’s striae
    4. High IOP
      1. Ans(1)
  13. Which of the following is not true regarding primary congenital glaucoma?
    1. Photophobia is the most common symptom
    2. Haab’s striae may be seen
    3. Thin and blue sclera may be seen
    4. The anterior chamber is shallow
      1. Ans(4)
  14. A baby about 30 days old presents with excessive lacrimation and photophobia. He has large and hazy cornea in both eyes. His lacrimal system is normal. What is the probable diagnosis?
    1. Congenital glaucoma
    2. Megalocornea
    3. Keratoconus
    4. Hunter’s syndrome
      1. Ans(1)
  15. The treatment of congenital glaucoma is
    1. Essentially topical medication
    2. Trabeculoplasty
    3. Trabeculectomy with trabeculectomy
    4. Cyclocrytherapy
      1. Ans(3)
  16. The earliest sign of congenital glaucoma is
    1. Corneal edema with watering
    2. Haab’s striae
    3. Blue sclera
    4. Myopia
      1. Ans(1)
  17. Descemet’s membrane breach is seen in:
    1. Angle-closure glaucoma
    2. Buphthalmos
    3. Open-angle glaucoma
    4. Acute iridocyclitis
      1. Ans(2)
  18. Which of the following does not cause hazy cornea in a newborn?
    1. Endothelial dystrophy
    2. Mucopolysaccharidosis
    3. Sclerocornea
    4. Droplet keratopathy
      1. Ans(4)
  19. The shallow anterior chamber is seen in all expect
    1. Old age
    2. Hypermetropia
    3. Steroid-induced glaucoma
    4. Angle-closure glaucoma
      1. Ans(3)
  20. Which statements’ regarding the depth of anterior chamber is/are false?
    1. Depth is less in women than men
    2. Depth corresponds to the volume of aqueous humor
    3. Depth increase will age
    4. Depth is less in hypermetropes
      1. Ans(2)
  21. All of the following predispose to angle closure glaucoma except
    1. Small cornea
    2. Flat cornea
    3. Shallow anterior chamber
    4. Short axial length of the eyeball
      1. Ans(2)
  22. True about PACG is/are
    1. More common in females
    2. A shallow anterior chamber is a risk factor
    3. The deep anterior chamber is a risk factor
    4. The small diameter of the cornea is a risk factor
      1. Ans(1)
  23. A 36 years old female develops pain in the eyes after prone dark room test. Which of the drugs should be avoided?
    1. Acetazolamide
    2. Pilocarpine
    3. Atropine
    4. Timolol
      1. Ans(3)
  24. A 50 – year-old female presents with acute painful red eye and vertically oval midpainful red eye and vertically oval mid-dilated pupil. Most likely diagnosis is;
    1. Acute retrobulbar neuritis
    2. Acute angle closure glaucoma
    3. Acute anterior uveitis
    4. Severe keratoconjunctivitis
      1. Ans(2)
  25. A 60-year-old male presents with colored haloes. ON Fincham’s test the haloes split and then reunite. The most probable diagnosis is;
    1. Acute congestive glaucoma
    2. Open-angle glaucoma
    3. Senile immature cataract
    4. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
      1. Ans(3)
  26. A– 55 –years –old female comes to the casualty with history of severe eye pain, redness and diminution of vision. On examination the visual acuity is 6/60 there is circumcorneal congestion, corneal edema, and a shallow anterior chamber. Which is the drug of choice?
    1. Atropine ointment
    2. Intravenous Mannitol
    3. Ciprofloxacin eye drops
    4. Betamethasone eye drops
      1. Ans(2)
  27. The first drug to be given in acute angle closure glaucoma:
    1. Acetazolamide
    2. Atropine
    3. Pilocarpine
    4. Timolol
      1. Ans(1)
  28. Drug of choice for acute angle closure glaucoma
    1. Pilocarpine
    2. Atropine
    3. Timolol
    4. Acetazolamide
      1. Ans(1)
  29. Treatment of choice for acute angle closure glaucoma:
    1. Pilocarpine
    2. Laser iridotomy
    3. Timolol
    4. Trabeculoplasty
      1. Ans(2)
  30. Drugs used in acute congestive glaucoma are all except:
    1. Atropine
    2. Pilocarpine
    3. Acetazolamide
    4. Mannitol
      1. Ans(1)
  31. Treatment of choice of fellow eye in acute congestive glaucoma;
    1. Pilocarpine
    2. Nd: YAG iridotomy
    3. Peripheral iridectomy
    4. Careful follow-up
      1. Ans(2)
  32. Miotics are the drug of choice for:
    1. Angle-closure glaucoma
    2. Open-angle glaucoma
    3. Congenital glaucoma
    4. Sympathetic ophthalmia
      1. Ans(1)
  33. Treatment of choice for absolute glaucoma:
    1. Cyclocryotherapy
    2. Acetazolamide
    3. Trabeculectomy
    4. Timolol
      1. Ans(1)
  34. Open-angle glaucoma causes:
    1. Sudden loss of vision
    2. Difficulty in dark adaptation
    3. Amaurosis fugax
    4. Uniocular diplopia
      1. Ans(2)
  35. In POAG which of the following is not seen?
    1. Vertical cupping
    2. Horizontal cupping
    3. Bayonetting of vessels
    4. Dot sign
      1. Ans(2)
  36. Earliest field defect in primary open angle glaucoma:
    1. Paracentral scotoma
    2. Ring scotoma
    3. Seidel scotoma
    4. Arcuate scotoma
      1. Ans(1)
  37. A 70 years old patient presents with progressive deterioration of vision. On examination, the pupillary reaction is sluggish and the IOP is normal. Fundoscopy shows a large and deep cup Visual field reveals paracentral scotoma. What is the probable diagnosis/
    1. Primary angle closure glaucoma
    2. Normal tension glaucoma
    3. Neovascular glaucoma
    4. Absolute glaucoma
      1. Ans(2)
  38. A male patient with the history of hyper mature cataract presents with sudden onset pain, redness, photophobia in the right eye. On examination, there is a deep anterior chamber with raised IOP. The left eye is normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
    1. Phacomorphic glaucoma
    2. Phacolytic glaucoma
    3. Phacotaxic glaucoma
    4. Phacoanaphylactic uveitis
      1. Ans(2)
  39. An iridocorneal endothelial syndrome is associated with:
    1. Progressive iris atrophy
    2. Bilateral stromal edema of a cornea
    3. Deposition of collagen in the Descemet’s membrane
    4. Deposition of collagen in the
      1. Ans(1)
  40. Malignant glaucoma is seen in:
    1. After intraocular surgery
    2. Intraocular malignancy
    3. Trauma
    4. Thrombosis
      1. Ans(1)
  41. Malignant glaucoma correct statements are;
    1. The anterior chamber is normal
    2. Misdirected aqueous flow
    3. Pilocarpine is the drug of choice
    4. Management is medical only
      1. Ans(2)
  42. Neovascularization of iris is seen in all except;
    1. CROV
    2. Diabetic retinopathy
    3. Fuch’s heterochromic iridocyclitis
    4. Congenital cataract
      1. Ans(4)
  43. The laser procedure used for treating rubeosis iridis is:
    1. Goniophotocogulation
    2. Pan-retinal photocoagulation
    3. Laser trabeculoplasty
    4. Laser iridotomy
      1. Ans(2)
  44. A 25-years old patient with the painless red eye with an IOP of 60 mm Hg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Chronic papilloedema
    2. Acute angle closure glaucoma
    3. Glaucomatocyclitic crisis
    4. acute anterior uveitis
      1. Ans(3)
  45. Krukenberg spindle is seen at:
    1. Pigmentary glaucoma
    2. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
    3. Retinitis pigmentosa
    4. Chalazion
      1. Ans(1)
  46. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for the treatment of glaucoma?
    1. Timolol
    2. Latanoprost
    3. Acetazolamide
    4. Dorzolamide
      1. Ans(3)
  47. Contraindications for topical beta blockers are:
    1. hypertension
    2. Asthma
    3. Tachycardia
    4. Hypotension
      1. Ans(2)
  48. Which of the following anti-glaucoma medication can cause drowsiness?
    1. Latanoprost
    2. Brimonidine
    3. Timolol
    4. Dorzolamide
      1. Ans(2)
  49. Which anti-glaucoma medication is unsafe in infants?
    1. Trimol
    2. Brimonidine
    3. Dorzolamide
    4. Latanoprost
      1. Ans(2)
  50. latanoprost acts in glaucoma by:
    1. Decreasing aqueous humor production
    2. Increasing Uveoscleral outflow
    3. Increasing trabecular outflow
    4. Releasing pupillary block
      1. Ans(2)

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