PG NEET Ophthalmology Mcqs – Glaucoma

  1. Uveoscleral outflow is increased by;
    1. Timolol
    2. Bimatoprost
    3. Mannitol
    4. Dorzolamide
      1. Ans(2)
  2. Which of the following topical drugs causes heterochromia iridis?
    1. Latanoprost
    2. Prednisolone
    3. Olopatadine
    4. Timolol
      1. Ans(1)
  3. Which anti-glaucoma drug causes pigmentation of eyelids?
    1. Brimonidine
    2. Timolol
    3. Latanoprost
    4. Dorzolamide
      1. Ans(3)
  4. Which of the following drugs is nor used in a patient with acute congestive glaucoma having a history of sulfa allergy?
    1. glycerol
    2. Acetazolamide
    3. Mannitol
    4. Latanoprost
      1. Ans(2)
  5. Black deposit on conjunctiva in a patient of glaucoma are seen with the use of:
    1. Epinephrine
    2. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
    3. Prostaglandin analogs
    4. B-Blockers
      1. Ans(1)
  6. Hyperosmotic agents act by:
    1. Increasing aqueous outflow
    2. Decreasing aqueous production
    3. Decreasing vitreous volume
    4. Increasing uveoscleral outflow
      1. Ans(3)
  7. Which drug is contraindicated in uveitic glaucoma?
    1. Beta-blockers
    2. Mydriatic
    3. Miotics
    4. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
      1. Ans(3)
  8. Antiglaucoma drug that should be avoided in hypertensives is:
    1. Timolol
    2. Apraclonidine
    3. Dipivefrine
    4. Dorzolamide
      1. Ans(3)
  9. Which of these drug combinations is not generally used in glaucoma?
    1. Timolol +Latanoprost
    2. Timolol + Brimonidine
    3. Timolol + Pilocarpine
    4. Pilocarpine + Latanoprost
      1. Ans(4)
  10. Which anti-glaucoma drug is contraindicated in uveitis?
    1. Pilocarpine
    2. Timolol
    3. Brimonidine
    4. Latanoprost
      1. Ans(1)
  11. True about pilocarpine is:
    1. It acts by decreasing secretion from the ciliary epithelium
    2. It is the drug of choice in angle closure glaucoma
    3. It is a hyperosmotic agent
    4. Side effects include bitter taste and renal calculi
      1. Ans(2)
  12. Laser trabeculoplasty as indicated in:
    1. neovascular glaucoma
    2. Pseudoexfoliation glaucoma
    3. Chronic angle-closure glaucoma
    4. uveitic glaucoma
      1. Ans(2)
  13. Glaucoma drainage devices:
    1. Drain aqueous humor to the posterior segment
    2. Drain aqueous humor to an external device
    3. Decrease the secretion of aqueous humor from the ciliary epithelium
    4. Open up the trabecular meshwork
      1. Ans(2)
  14. Express shunt in glaucoma is made up of:
    1. Silicon
    2. Titanium
    3. Gold
    4. Stainless steel
      1. Ans(4)
  15. Treatment options for glaucoma are all except:
    1. Trabeculotomy
    2. Trabeculectomy
    3. Visco canalostomy
    4. Vitrectomy
      1. Ans(4)
  16. Triple procedure in glaucoma includes all the following except:
    1. Trabeculectomy
    2. PCIOL implantation
    3. Extracapsular cataract extraction
    4. Insertion of glaucoma drainage device
      1. Ans(4)
  17. Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in:
    1. Epidemic dropsy
    2. marfan’s syndrome
    3. Hypertension
    4. Diabetes
      1. Ans(1)
  18. In acute congestive glaucoma, the management of fellow eye is:
    1. Filtration surgery
    2. Cyclo – photocoagulation
    3. Laser iridotomy
    4. Cyclo – diathermy
      1. Ans(3)
  19. The drug CI in hypertensive uveitis is:
    1. Phosphatidylcholine
    2. Latanoprost
    3. Di phenylephrine
    4. Pilocarpine
      1. Ans(2)
  20. A patient on treatment for glaucoma develops blepharoconjunctivitis. The most likely drug to be implicated is:
    1. Pilocarpine
    2. Timolol
    3. Dipivefrin
    4. Steroids
      1. Ans(2)
  21. Patients present with photophobia and redness of the eye. On examination, vertically oval and mid-dilated pupils are seen. The most likely diagnosis is
    1. Acute retrobulbar neuritis
    2. Acute congestive/angle closure glaucoma
    3. Acute anterior uveitis
    4. Severe Keratoconjunctivitis
      1. Ans(2)
  22. A young doctor has been asked to exclude open-angle glaucoma. This can be done best by testing:
    1. Cupping of the disc
    2. The depth of the anterior chamber
    3. Visual acuity and refractive error
    4. The angle of the anterior chamber
      1. Ans(2)
  23. An 8-month-old child has excessive tearing from both eyes. On examination no conjunctival congestion, photophobia was present. Tear passage is normal but cornea is large.Most likely diagnosis is:
    1. Acute mucopurulent conjunctivitis
    2. Keratoconus
    3. Congenital glaucoma
    4. Ophthalmia neonatorum
      1. Ans(3)
  24. In the acute attack of angle closure glaucoma, the drug of choice is:
    1. Thymo amine
    2. Timolol
    3. Pilocarpine
    4. Eserine
      1. Ans(3)
  25. Tomography is important:
    1. Represents field changes
    2. Gives continuous intraocular pressure tracings
    3. Detecting the drainage  of aqueous humor
    4. Detecting the formation of aqueous humor
      1. Ans(3)
  26. The anterior chamber has the least depth in which of the following condition:
    1. Corneal ulcer
    2. Subluxation of lens
    3. Iridocyclitis
    4. Closed-angle glaucoma
      1. Ans(4)
  27. Not associated with open glaucoma
    1. Choroiditis
    2. Myopia
    3. Thyroid disease
    4. Diabetes
      1. Ans(1)
  28. The commonest complication of topical steroids is
    1. glaucoma
    2. cataract
    3. Ptosis
    4. Iritis
      1. Ans(1)
  29. The best treatment of primary angle closure glaucoma is
    1. Trabeculectomy
    2. Pilocarpine
    3. Timolol
    4. Iridectomy
      1. Ans(4)
  30. The type of synechiae in iris bombe is:
    1. ring
    2. total
    3. Goni form
    4. Filiform
      1. Ans(1)
  31. The treatment of choice in acute congestive glaucoma
    1. Pilocarpine
    2. Laser iridotomy
    3. TImolol
    4. Trabeculoplasty
      1. Ans(2)
  32. Drug not used in a hypertensive patient with glaucoma is:
    1. Acetazolamide
    2. Beta-blockers
    3. Dipivefrin
    4. Alpha agonist
      1. Ans(3)
  33. A patient with glaucoma presented with status asthmaticus.The possible  cause may be all except:
    1. Levobunolol eye drops
    2. Betaxolol eye drops
    3. Timolol eye drops
    4. Pilocarpine eye drops
      1. Ans(4)
  34. Hypersecretory glaucoma is seen in:
    1. Epidemic dropsy
    2. marfan’s syndrome
    3. Hypertension
    4. Diabetes
      1. Ans(1)
  35. Red congested painful eye with the mild dilated vertical oval pupil is seen in:
    1. Eales’ disease
    2. Keratoconjunctivitis
    3. Anterior uveitis
    4. Acute congestive glaucoma
      1. Ans(4)
  36. Buphthalmos may be associated most commonly with:
    1. Angiomatosis retinea
    2. Tuberous sclerosis
    3. Sturge Weber syndrome
    4. Retinoschisis
      1. Ans(3)
  37. Field defect not seen in glaucoma is:
    1. Temporal field is first to be affected
    2. Paracentral scotomas
    3. Isolated scotoma may develop
    4. Complete barring of blind spot
      1. Ans(1)
  38. Trabeculectomy is done in:
    1. cataract
    2. Glaucoma
    3. ptosis
    4. keratoconus
      1. Ans(2)
  39. The cause of a colored “Halo” in a narrow-angle glaucoma is:
    1. Increase IOP
    2. Corneal oedema
    3. Lenticular changes
    4. Lacrimation
      1. Ans(2)
  40. The average intraocular pressure of a normal human eye is:
    1. 20 – 30 mm Hg
    2. 10 – 20 mm Hg
    3. 5 -10 mm Hg
    4. 35 – 42 mm Hg
      1. Ans(2)
  41. Operation of choice in chronic open-angle glaucoma is:
    1. Cyclodialysis
    2. Iridenclesis
    3. Cyclo – cryotherapy
    4. Trabeculectomy
      1. Ans(4)
  42. The ocular finding of Vob Recklinghausen disease is:
    1. Deformed anterior chamber with a reduced angle of AC
    2. Glaucoma
    3. Choroidal hemangioma
    4. Subretinal neovascularization
      1. Ans(2)
  43. Intractable glaucoma characteristically occurs in which one of the following?
    1. Diffuse iris melanoma
    2. The anterior iris melanocytic proliferation
    3. Posterior uveal melanocyte proliferation
    4. Lens enlargement
      1. Ans(1)
  44. Raised LDH levels in Aqueous is seen in;
    1. Galactosemia
    2. Glaucoma
    3. Hemangioblastoma
    4. Retinoblastoma
      1. Ans(4)
  45. False about Latanoprost:
    1. It is prostaglandin F2a analogue
    2. Decreases intraocular pressure by decreasing aqueous production
    3. has a short half-life in the plasma making systemic side-effects uncommon
    4. Is associated with conjunctival hyperemia
      1. Ans(2)
  46. False about intraocular pressure:
    1. Is at its peak usually at around mid-day
    2. is at its lowest in the evening
    3. Is higher in winter than in summer
    4. shows greater diurnal variation in the glaucomatous eyes than the healthy eyes
      1. Ans(2)
  47. Direct – acting cholinergic agonists is:
    1. pilocarpine
    2. echothiophate
    3. Tropicamide
    4. Atropine
      1. Ans(1)
  48. The ocular effects of prostaglandins include: all except
    1. Breakdown of the blood-aqueous barrier
    2. Miosis
    3.  Conjunctival
    4. Eyelid retraction
      1. Ans(4)
  49. True statements about carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are:
    1. at least 50% of the carbonic anhydrase needs to be inhibited before the intraocular pressure shows a significant drop
    2. They inhibit carbonic anhydrase found in the non-pigmentary ciliary epithelium
    3. transient hypermetropia is a feature
    4. It can cause thinning of the cornea if given topically
      1. Ans(2)
  50. The effect of pilocarpine includes all except:
    1. Increased incidence of retinal tear
    2. Increased tension in the zonules
    3. contrasted of the ciliary body
    4. The increased thickness of the lens
      1. Ans(2)

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