PG NEET Orthopaedics MCQS 26 – Lower Limb Traumatology

  1. True about proximal fracture in supratrochanteric fracture is
    1. Flexion
    2. Abduction
    3. External rotation
    4. all the above
      1. Ans(4)
  2. Subtrochanteric fracture of femur can be treated  by all of the following methods except
    1. Skeletal traction on Thomas’ splint
    2. Smith Petersen nail
    3. Condylar blade plate
    4. Ender’s nail
      1. Ans(2)
  3. What is a floating knee?
    1. Damage to both anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments
    2. Condition of knee due to tear in medial and lateral collateral ligaments
    3. Femoral shaft fracture with proximal tibia metaphyseal fracture
    4. Advanced tuberculosis of knee joint
      1. Ans(3)
  4. True supracondylar fracture of femur:
    1. Type A
    2. Type B
    3. Type C
    4. Type D
      1. Ans(1)
  5. A child was given gallows traction. What is the diagnosis/
    1. Fracture shaft femur
    2. fracture shaft hummers
    3. Fracture ulna
    4. Spine injury
      1. Ans(1)
  6. Exsanguinating blood loss in:
    1. Closed humerus fracture
    2. Closed tibia fracture
    3. Open femur fracture
    4. open humerus fracture
      1. Ans(3)
  7. Gallows traction is most optimum for:
    1. Fracture shaft femur >3 years of age
    2. Fracture shaft femur <2 years of age
    3. Fracture Tibia
    4. Cervical spine injuries
      1. Ans(2)
  8. Why fracture shaft femur is early stabilized:
    1. To prevent blood loss
    2. ARDS
    3. Non – union
    4. Compartment syndrome
      1. Ans(1)
  9. Blood loss fracture shaft femur;
    1. 1 unit
    2. 2 units
    3. 3 units
    4. 4 units
      1. Ans(2)
  10. Thomas splint most troubling is:
    1. Ring
    2. Sidebars
    3. Gauze support
    4. traction attachment
      1. Ans(1)
  11. The femur is fractured at birth at:
    1. Upper third of  shaft
    2. Middle third of shaft
    3. Lower third of shaft
    4. Neck region
      1. Ans(1)
  12. Regarding Guard’s criteria all correct except;
    1. Diagnostic criteria for fat embolism syndrome
    2. Pulmonary oedema is major criterion
    3. Thrombocytopenia is a major criterion
    4. 1 major + 4 minor criteria required to diagnose as Fat embolism
      1. Ans(3)
  13. The first symptom is fat embolism is;
    1. tachypnea
    2. Hypoxemia
    3. Rash
    4. Drowsiness
      1. Ans(1)
  14. Features of fat embolism
    1. Bradycardia
    2. Hypoxia
    3. Hypotension
    4. Tachypnoea
      1. Ans(2)
  15. Fat embolism syndrome is most commonly seen after
    1. femur fracture
    2. Acetabular fracture
    3. Pelvis fracture
    4. Calcaneal fracture
      1. Ans(1)
  16. Fat embolism most common fracture associated is:
    1. Humerus
    2. Tibia
    3. Femur
    4. Pelvis
      1. Ans(3)
  17. Fat embolism syndrome is characterized by all except:
    1. tachycardia
    2. Hypoxemia
    3. Fat globules in urine
    4. Thrombocytosis
      1. Ans(4)
  18. A person with multiple injuries develops fever restlessness tachycardia, tachypnea, and subconjunctival rash after 48 hours of injury. The likely diagnosis is:
    1. Air embolism
    2. Fat embolism
    3. Pulmonary embolism
    4. bacterial pneumonitis
      1. Ans(2)
  19. Install – Salvati index is used for:
    1. Olecranon
    2. patella
    3. talus
    4. Scaphoid
      1. Ans(2)
  20. bulge sign in the knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation
    1. 100 ml
    2. 400 ml
    3. 200 ml
    4. <30 ml
      1. Ans(4)
  21. Tube cast is applied for the fracture of;
    1. Shoulder
    2. Hip
    3. Pelvis
    4. knee
      1. Ans(4)
  22. Transverse fracture of the patella with separation of fragments is the best treatment by:
    1. closed reduction with the cylinder cast
    2. open reduction with screw fixation of the fragments
    3. Blind fixation of the two fragments with Kirschner – wire
    4. Open reduction with Kirschner – wire fixation of the fragment with tension band wiring
      1. Ans(4)
  23. A comminuted fracture of the Patella should be treated by:
    1. Inserting screws and wires
    2. Physiotherapy alone
    3. Patellectomy
    4. Removal of smallest piece only
      1. Ans(3)
  24. Mechanism of injury in lateral condylar fracture of proximal tibia
    1. Strain of valgus knee
    2. Strain of varus knee
    3. Strain of valgus knee with axial loading
    4. rotational injury
      1. Ans(3)
  25. Patellar tendon bearing cast is indicated in the following fracture:
    1. Patella
    2. Tibia
    3. Medial malleolus
    4. Femur
      1. Ans(2)
  26. In posterior compartment syndrome which passive movement causes pain?
    1. Dorsiflexion of foot
    2. Foot inversion
    3. Toe dorsiflexion
    4. toe plantar flexion
      1. Ans(3)
  27. Ottawa ankle rules are used to
    1. diagnose rupture of Achilles tendon
    2. Decide on treatment for CTEV
    3. Decide on need of X-Ray for possible fracture
    4. Decide on immediate  vs.delayed treatment of ankle dislocation
      1. Ans(3)
  28. Which muscle is attached to the tuberosity of navicular bone?
    1. Adductor hallucis
    2. Flexor hallucis brevis
    3. Tibialis anterior
    4. Tibialis posterior
      1. Ans(4)
  29. Pronation of foot the joint that become parallel are:
    1. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
    2. subtalar and calcaneocuboid
    3. Subtalar and navicular
    4. Subtalar and lisfracs
      1. Ans(1)
  30. Pilon fracture is:
    1. Intraarticular fracture distal tibia
    2. Intraarticular fracture proximal tibia
    3. Fracture ulna
    4. Fracture radius
      1. Ans(1)
  31. Which of the following is a syndesmosis?
    1. Superior tibiofibular joint
    2. Inferior tibiofibular joint
    3. Talocalcaneal joint
    4. Calcaneocuboid joint
      1. Ans(2)
  32. Ankle sprain ligament involved is:
    1. Anterior talofibular ligament
    2. Posterior talofibular ligament
    3. Calcaneofibular ligament
    4. Spring ligament
      1. Ans()
  33. March fracture involves:
    1. 1st and 2nd metatarsal
    2. 2nd and 3rd metatarsal
    3. 3rd and 4th metatarsal
    4. 4th and 5th metatarsal
      1. Ans(2)
  34. Runner’s fracture involves:
    1. Tibia
    2. Fibula
    3. Metatarsal
    4. Talus
      1. Ans(2)
  35. Fracture involving both the malleoli is
    1. Cotton’s fracture
    2. Pott’s fracture
    3. Pirogoff’s fracture
    4. Dupuytren’s fracture
      1. Ans(2)
  36. Fracture of talus without displacement in X-Ray would lead to:
    1. Osteoarthritis of ankle
    2. Osteonecrosis of head of talus
    3. Avascular necrosis of body of talus
    4. Avascular necrosis of neck of talus
      1. Ans(1)
  37. Avascular necrosis is a complication of:
    1. Fracture of talus
    2. Fracture of medial condyle of femur
    3. Olecranon fracture
    4. Radial head fracture
      1. Ans(1)
  38. One of the following fracture requires plaster of Paris cast with equines position:
    1. Distal fracture both bones leg
    2. Distal fracture fibula
    3. Bimalleolar
    4. Fracture talus
      1. Ans(4)
  39. MC comp. of fractre talus is:
    1. Avascular necroisi
    2. Non – union
    3. osteoarthritis of ankle joint
    4. osteoarthritis of subtalar joint
      1. Ans(4)
  40. Bohler’s angle is decreased in the fracture
    1. Talus
    2. Calcaneum
    3. Navicular
    4. Cuboid
      1. Ans(2)
  41. Most commonly injured tarsal bone
    1. Talus
    2. Navicular
    3. Cuneiform
    4. calcaneum
      1. Ans(4)
  42. Long compression is used for which fracture:
    1. Talus
    2. Calcaneum
    3. Fibula
    4. Femur
      1. Ans(2)
  43. Bohler’s angle is for:
    1. Talus
    2. CTEV
    3. calcaneum
    4. scaphoid
      1. Ans(3)
  44. Fracture of calcaneus management depending upon:
    1. Type of fracture
    2. Subtalar joint dislocation
    3. Duration of presentation
    4. All of the above
      1. Ans(4)
  45. Bohler’s angle is decreased in fracture of:
    1. Calcaneum
    2. Talus
    3. Navicular
    4. Cuboid
      1. Ans(1)
  46. Giussani’s angle in intraarticular fracture of calcaneum:
    1. Reduced
    2. Increased
    3. Not Changed
    4. Variable
      1. Ans(2)
  47. The neutral triangle is seen radiologically in:
    1. Neck femur
    2. Proximal Humerus
    3. Calcaneum
    4. Talus
      1. Ans(3)
  48. Watson – jones approach is done for?
    1. Neglected clubfoot
    2. Muscle paralysis
    3. Valgus deformity
    4. Hip replacement
      1. Ans(4)
  49. Which of the following is an intra-articular fracture?
    1. Barton’s fracture
    2. Bennett’s fracture
    3. Colles fracture
    4. Pilon fracture
      1. Ans(1)
  50. Chopart fracture involves
    1. Midtarsal
    2. tarsometatarsal joints
    3. Base 5th metacarpal
    4. Fracture neck of talus
      1. Ans(1)

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