PG NEET Microbiology MCQs 13 – Immunity

1.Which is false

  1. IgG gives stronger precipitation reaction than IgM
  2. IgM gives stronger agglutination reaction than IgG
  3. IgM gives stronger complement fixation reaction than IgG
  4. IgG is more involved in lysis than IgM

Ans (4)

2. Complement acts by

  1. activating adenyl cyclase
  2. inhibiting elongation factor
  3. destruction of cell wall
  4. increase the permeability of the cell wall

Ans (4)

3. The transfer is an example of

  1. artificial active immunity
  2. natural active immunity
  3. adoptive immunity
  4. artificial passive immunity

Ans (3)

4. Which of the following is not a heterophile reaction

  1. Weil Felix reaction
  2. Paul Bunnel reaction
  3. Frei’s test
  4. cold agglutination test

Ans (3)

5. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in

  1. the thymus
  2. the bursal equivalent
  3. T cell B cell interaction
  4. stem cell originating in the bone marrow

Ans (4)

6. Components of innate immunity

  1. T lymphocyte
  2. B lymphocyte
  3. complements
  4. NK cells
  5. integrins

Ans (3,4,5)

7. Wasserman test is

  1. tube flocculation test
  2. complement fixation test
  3. slide agglutination test
  4. immunoassay

Ans (2)

8. Helper and cytotoxic cells belong to

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. mast cells
  4. platelets

Ans (1)

9. All the following are part of innate immunity except

  1. complement
  2. NK cells
  3. macrophages
  4. T cells

Ans (4)

10. Which of the following sequences is appropriate for testing a patient for antibody against the AIDS virus with the ELISA procedure. The assay is carried out in a plastic plate with an incubation and a wash step after each addition except the final test

  1. patient’s serum/enzyme substrate/HIV antigen/enzyme labelled antibody against HIV
  2. HIV antigen/patient’s serum/enzyme labelled antibody against HIV/enzyme substrate
  3. patient’s serum/enzyme labelled antibody against HIV/enzyme substrate/HIV antigen
  4. enzyme labelled antibody against HIV/enzyme substrate/HIV antigen/patient’s serum

Ans (2)

11. Which of the following cell types is not considered a professional antigen presenting cell

  1. macrophage
  2. neutrophil
  3. B cell
  4. dendritic cell

Ans (2)

12. Active immunity can be induced by

  1. toxoids
  2. subclinical infection
  3. antitoxin
  4. immunoglobulin
  5. antigen exposure

Ans (1,2,5)

13. Which of the following is a neutralisation test

  1. Rose Waler test
  2. Paul Bunnel Test
  3. widal test
  4. Shick test

Ans (4)

14. A helper T lymphocyte is known to recognise which one of the following on a presenting cell

  1. HLA class I antigen
  2. HLA class III antigen
  3. processed antigen
  4. CD8 antigen

Ans (3)

15. True about passive immunity

  1. cannot be given with active immunity
  2. lasts for 4-5 days
  3. it can be given before disease occurrence
  4. can be transferred by antibodies from another host
  5. takes a longer time to develop

Ans (3,4)

16. Most sensitive test for antigen detection

  1. RIA
  2. ELISA
  3. immunofluorescence
  4. passive haemagglutination

Ans (1)

17. All are true regarding lymphocytes except

  1. the receptor of Fc piece of IgG is present on B cell
  2. B cells form EC rosette
  3. T cells are responsible for SRBC rosette
  4. T cells have CD3 on the surface

Ans (2)

18. Superantigen is produced by

  1. Staphylococcus aureus
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Clostridium

Ans (1)

19. Hormones are best assessed by

  1. flow cytometry
  2. electrophoresis
  3. ELISA
  4. RIA

Ans (4)

20. All are true except

  1. helper T cell form about 64 percent of circulating T cells
  2. NK cell and K cell produce antibodies
  3. NK cells are important in tumor rejection
  4. NK cells are responsible for the killing of virally infected cells

Ans (2)

21. The span of C reactive protein half-life

  1. 18 hrs
  2. 2 hrs
  3. 12 hrs
  4. 15 hrs

Ans (1)

22. DNA is detected by

  1. southern blot
  2. northern blot
  3. western blot
  4. eastern blot

Ans (1)

23. Regulation of immune response is by

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. macrophages
  4. histiocytes

Ans (1)

24. Bacteria used in Griffith experiment

  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
  2. capsulated Streptococcus pneumonia
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. MRSA
  5. non-capsulated streptococcus pneumoniae

Ans (2,5)

25. Complement has the following function except

  1. promotes phagocytosis
  2. helps in cell lysis
  3. increases vascular permeability
  4. helps in B cell maturation

Ans (4)

26. Rosette formation with sheep RBC indicate functioning of

  1. T lymphocytes
  2. B lymphocytes
  3. eosinophils
  4. macrophages

Ans (1)

27. Pick the right statement regarding plasmids

  1. nonself replicative
  2. acts as messenger RNA
  3. involved in conjugated transfer between strains
  4. involved in transformation

Ans (3)

28. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway

  1. AgAb complex
  2. lipopolysaccharide
  3. exotoxin
  4. antibody

Ans (1)

29. Which two important substances are released by activated Tc cells

  1. granzymes and defensins
  2. interferins and defensins
  3. perforins and granzymes
  4. interferins and granzymes

Ans (3)

30. Non toxigenic C diphtheriae changes to toxigenic C diphtheriae by the help of bacteriophage … by which method this condition occurs

  1. transfection
  2. transduction
  3. conjugation
  4. recombinant technology

Ans (2)

31. Patient with C5 through C9 complement deficiencies are most likely susceptible to which of the following infections

  1. AIDS
  2. giardiasis
  3. histoplasmosis
  4. meningococcal infection

Ans (4)

32. Which of the following is a pan T lymphocyte marker

  1. CD2
  2. CD3
  3. CD19
  4. CD25

Ans (2)

33. Movement of DNA from one bacteria to another connection tube or pilus is called

  1. transformation
  2. transduction
  3. conjugation
  4. lysogenic conversion

Ans (3)

34. Center of the complement pathway

  1. C3
  2. C1
  3. C5
  4. C2

Ans (1)

35. Memory T cells can be identified by the following marker

  1. CD45RA
  2. CD45RB
  3. CD45RC
  4. CD45RO

Ans (4)

36. Mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA

  1. transformation
  2. conjugation
  3. transduction
  4. none

Ans (1)

37. C3 convertase in alternative complement pathway

  1. C4b2a
  2. C3b
  3. C3b8b
  4. C3a

Ans (3)

38. The blood from an 8-year-old boy was analysed by flow cytometry. An exact number of B cells was counted. Which cell surface marker was used to identify the B cells in the blood sample

  1. CD3
  2. CD4
  3. CD8
  4. CD19

Ans (4)

39. Phage-mediated transfer of cDNA into the host is known as

  1. transduction
  2. transformation
  3. transmission
  4. conjugation

Ans (1)

40. Bacteria coated with complement and immunoglobulin phagocytosis is enhanced by

  1. receptor-mediated endocytosis
  2. pseudopod formation
  3. myeloperoxidase mediated destruction
  4. C3b-Fc mediated destruction

Ans (4)

41. You are studying a particular type of immune cell but you are not sure which type. It is a relatively large ovoid cell and has an extensive array of rough endoplasmic reticulum. Biochemical studies indicate that your cells lack any surface cluster designation proteins. What kind of cell might that be?

  1. plasma cell
  2. TH lymphocyte
  3. natural killer cell
  4. dendritic cell

Ans (1)

42. Horizontal transmission of R factor is by

  1. transduction
  2. transformation
  3. conjugation
  4. fusion

Ans (3)

43. Complement formed in liver

  1. C2C4
  2. C3C6C9
  3. C5C8
  4. C1

Ans (2)

44. Toll-like receptor correct statement is

  1. antigen-specific
  2. acts by cytokine release
  3. part of adaptive immunity
  4. none of the other

Ans (2)

45. Most common method of bacteria responsible for drug resistance

  1. conjugation
  2. transduction
  3. transformation
  4. enzyme inactivation
  5. mutation

Ans (1,4)

46. Snake venom acts by

  1. classical pathway
  2. alternate pathway
  3. both
  4. none

Ans (2)

47. All are true about innate immunity except

  1. not influenced by hormones
  2. dependant on genetic constitution
  3. identical degree have same degree of resistance
  4. not influenced by exposure to antigen

Ans (1)

48. Not true about bacterial drug resistance mechanism

  1. the most common method is the production of neutralising enzyme
  2. if the transmission is plasmid-mediated it is always transferred vertically
  3. alteration of the target seen in pneumococcal resistance
  4. complete removal of the target is the cause of resistance in vancomycin

Ans (2)

49. Which of the following is a chemoattractant

  1. C3a
  2. C3b
  3. C4
  4. C5

Ans (1)

50. Antigen presented by antigen presenting cells is recognised by

  1. T cell receptor
  2. Fc portion of immunoglobulin
  3. Fab portion of immunoglobulin
  4. B cell receptor

Ans (1)

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