go to link PG NEET Microbiology MCQs 15 – Immunity

http://compufact.com/pre-employment-drug-screens/ 1.In transplantation reaction

  1. white graft response is due to delayed response
  2. immunological enhancement aids in graft rejection
  3. The Eichenwald-silmer effect is unilateral sex-linked histocompatibility
  4. all the others are true

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see 2. All are true about bacterial killing except

  1. MPO helps in the formation of OCI
  2. NADPH helps in the formation of superoxide ion
  3. chediak hegashi has failure of phagolysosome formation
  4. immune deficiency in brutons agammaglobulinemia is not related to opsonization

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source url 3. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical twin. What type of graft is it

  1. xenograft
  2. autograft
  3. allograft
  4. isograft

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http://gandhijkt.org/?author=1 4. Survival of allograft is increased by choosing donors with few major histocompatibility complex mismatches with recipients and by use of immunosuppression in recipients. Which one of the following procedures might be a useful measure of immunosuppression

  1. administration of corticosteroids in recipient
  2. administration of immunoglobulin in recipients
  3. destruction of donor B cells
  4. destruction of donor T cells

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go to site 5. The NBT reduction assay is used to

  1. evaluate granulocyte function
  2. evaluate T cell function
  3. determine whether PMN’s can produce superoxide
  4. stain B cells

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http://bvns.net/happy-patients/madison/contactus 6. All the following are glycoproteins except

  1. blood antigen
  2. albumin
  3. immunoglobin
  4. HCG

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http://geomore.com/ 7. Ideally an antibiotic should focus on a microbial target not found on mammalian cells. By this standard which of the following antibiotic agent would be expected to be most toxic to humans

  1. bacitracin
  2. cephalosporin
  3. mitomycin
  4. penicillin

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go here 8. An 8 month old child is evaluated for repeated episodes of pneumococcal pneumonia. Serum studies demonstrate very low levels of IgM IgG and IgA. This is related to a deficiency of which of the following

  1. adenosine deaminase
  2. class III MHC gene
  3. gamma chain of IL2 receptors
  4. tyrosine kinase

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Tramadol Online American Express 9. Diagnosis of ABO incompatibility can be from all of the following except

  1. sweat
  2. saliva
  3. semen
  4. CSF

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Tramadol Order Online Overnight 10. Which of the following is combined immunodeficiency

  1. Nezelof syndrome
  2. ataxia telangiectasia
  3. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
  4. All the others are right

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http://melborinscreative.com/5-steps-in-talking-with-patients-about-alternative-medicine 11. A child presents with recurrent episodes of sinopulmonary infection by bacteria with the polysaccharide-rich capsule. Deficiency of which of the following immunoglobulin sub classes should be investigated for

  1. IgA
  2. IgG1
  3. IgG2
  4. IgA+IgG2

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12. The type of receptors present on T cells are

  1. IgG
  2. IgD
  3. CD3
  4. prostaglandins

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13. In Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

  1. there are thrombocytopenic purpura and recurrent infection
  2. IgM is low
  3. isoheamagglutinins are absent
  4. all the others are true

Ans (4)

14. The commonest primary immunodeficiency

  1. common variable immunodeficiency
  2. isolated IgA deficiency
  3. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
  4. AIDS

Ans (2)

15. What enhances multiplication of T cells in culture

  1. phytohaemagglutinin
  2. chemotactic factor
  3. leukotriens
  4. prostaglandins

Ans (1)

16. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome  not true is

  1. raised IgE
  2. raised IgM
  3. reduced IgA
  4. CD4 & CD8 cell defects

Ans (2)

17. Which is found in DiGeorge’s syndrome

  1. tetany
  2. eczema
  3. mucocutaneous candidiasis
  4. absent B and T cells
  5. total absence of T cells

Ans (1,3)

18. Nk cells kill the viral infected cells due to

  1. increased expression of MHC class I molecules
  2. decreased expression of MHC class I molecules
  3. increased expression of MHC class II molecules
  4. decreased expression of MHC class II molecules

Ans (1)

19. True about Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

  1. primary B cell defect
  2. primary T cell defect
  3. wasp gene mutation
  4. defect in phagocytosis

Ans (3)

20. Which fungal infection is commonest in neutropenia

  1. candida
  2. histoplasma
  3. Aspergillus niger
  4. Aspergillus fumigatus

Ans (1)

21. All the following are part of innate immunity except

  1. complement
  2. NK cells
  3. macrophages
  4. T cells

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22. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is seen in the following

  1. common variable deficiency
  2. severe combined deficiency
  3. chronic granulomatous disease
  4. Nezelof syndrome

Ans (2)

23. IL-2 is produced by

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. monocytes
  4. neutrophils

Ans (1)

24. Which is not a macrophage

  1. monocyte
  2. microglia
  3. Kupfer cells
  4. lymphocytes

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25. IgG can be reduced in the following except

  1. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
  2. selective IgA deficiency
  3. Di George syndrome
  4. combined immune deficiency

Ans (1)

26. Interleukin 2 is produced

  1. macrophages
  2. CD4 lymphocytes
  3. polymorphs
  4. CD8 lymphocytes

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27. Common between T and B cell

  1. origin from same cell lineage
  2. site differentiation
  3. antigenic marker
  4. both humoral and cellular immunity
  5. further differentiation seen

Ans (1,5)

28. A 4 year old boy came with epistaxis. He has an H/O multiple viral and bacterial infection and eczema. An uncle had similar problems. Physical examination is remarkable for multiple petechial lesions on the skin and mucous membrane. Serum IgE is increased and platelets are decreased. Most likely diagnosis

  1. acquired hypergammaglobulinemia
  2. ataxia telangiectasia
  3. DiGeorge syndrome
  4. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

Ans (4)

29. Which of the following statement about interferon is not true

  1. it is a glycoprotein
  2. produced by vertebrate host cells as a defence mechanism
  3. produced only in response to viral infection
  4. acts by preventing translation of viral RNA

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30. Apart from T and B cell ther is a third distinct type of lymphocyte. This is

  1. MHC cells
  2. NK cells
  3. macrophage
  4. neutrophil
  5. microglia

Ans (2)

31. All are combined immunodeficiencies except

  1. Swiss-type agammaglobulinemia
  2. reticular dysgenesis of valve
  3. adenosine deaminase deficiency
  4. Job’s syndrome

Ans (4)

32. As part of the management of a 28-year-old male with acute onset of Chron’s disease of the small bowel, you can decide to treat him with a new cocktail of mouse-human chimeric antibodies to reduce his intestinal inflammation and cachexia. To what set of proteins may these antibodies be directed.

  1. IL1 IL2 IL3
  2. IL2 IL12 TNFα
  3. IL2 TGFβ TNFα
  4. IL1 IL6 TNFα

Ans (4)

33. All of these are antigen presenting cells except

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. fibroblasts
  4. dendritic cells
  5. langerhans cells

Ans (1,3)

34. A 7 month old child is hospitalised for yeast infection that does not respond to therapy. Patient has a H/O multiple acute pyogenic infection. O/E spleen and lymph nodes are not palpable. DLC shows N95L1M4. BM biopsy contains no plasma cells or lymphocytes. CXR reveals an absence of thymic shadow. Tonsils are absent. His findings are not consistent with

  1. Bloom’s syndrome
  2. chronic granulomatous disease
  3. severe combined immunodeficiency
  4. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

Ans (3)

35. IL2 is produced by

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. monocytes
  4. neutrophils

Ans (1)

36. Perforins are produced by

  1. cytotoxic cells
  2. suppressor T cells
  3. memory helper T cells
  4. plasma cells
  5. NK cells

Ans (1)

37. In Job’s syndrome

  1. there is defective phagocytosis
  2. IgE are usually decreased
  3. both are true
  4. both are false

Ans (1)

38. Which of the following cell types are the most potent activator of T cell

  1. bell
  2. follicular dendritic cell
  3. mature dendritic cell
  4. macrophages

Ans (3)

39. IL1  is produced by

  1. macrophage
  2. helper T lymphocyte
  3. B cells
  4. cytotoxic T cells

Ans (1)

40. In lazy leukocyte syndrome

  1. there is defect in neutrophil motility
  2. there is peripheral leucopenia
  3. both are true
  4. both are false

Ans (3)

41. Which of the following best denote classical complement pathway activation in immunoinflammatory condition

  1. C2 C3 & C4 decreased
  2. C2 & C4 normal C3 decreased
  3. C2 & C4 decreased C3 normal
  4. C2 C3 & C4 elevated

Ans (1)

42. Which complement component is involved in both classical and alternate pathway

  1. C1
  2. C2
  3. C3
  4. all

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43. In Schwarzman’s disease

  1. Ig deficiency
  2. disorder of phagocytosis
  3. disorder of neutrophil mobility
  4. disorder of bone marrow

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44. IL1 produces

  1. T lymphocyte activation
  2. delayed wound healing
  3. increased pain perception
  4. decreased PMN release from the bone marrow

Ans (1)

45. Which of the following features is not shared between T cells and B cells

  1. positive selection during development
  2. class I MHC receptor
  3. antigen-specific receptor
  4. all the others are right

Ans (1)

46. Chronic granulomatosis is a

  1. B cell defect
  2. T cell defect
  3. complement defect
  4. disorder of phagocytosis

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47. Which of the following statement is true about hapten

  1. it induces brisk immune response
  2. it needs carrier to induce immune response
  3. it is a T independent antigen
  4. it has no association with MHC

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48. The role played by MHC 1 and 2 is to

  1. transduce the signal to T cells following antigen recognition
  2. mediate immunogenic class switching
  3. present antigen for recognition by T cell antigen receptor
  4. enhance the secretion of cytokines

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49. In hyper IgE syndrome

  1. there is early onset of eczema
  2. cellular immunity is affected
  3. humoral immunity is defective
  4. all the others are right

Ans (1)

50. T cell functions are assessed by

  1. phagocytic index
  2. T cell count
  3. migration inhibition test
  4. immunoglobulin index

Ans (3)

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