PG NEET Microbiology MCQs 9 –Morphology, Growth & Nutrition

1. Obligate anaerobes are A/E

  1. Eikenella corridens
  2. pepto streptococcus
  3. bacteroides
  4. clostridium

Ans (1)

2. Delta chains are seen in

  1. IgA
  2. IgG
  3. IgE
  4. IgD

Ans (4)

3. IgE is synthesized in

  1. Type I Hypersensitivity
  2. Type II Hypersensitivity
  3. Type III Hypersensitivity
  4. Type IV Hypersensitivity

Ans (1)

4. Best ph growth of bacteria is

  1. 4.6
  2. 7
  3. 7.2
  4. 8.4

Ans (3)

5. Serum sickness is a type of

  1. Type I Hypersensitivity
  2. Type II Hypersensitivity
  3. Type III Hypersensitivity
  4. Type IV Hypersensitivity

Ans (3)

6. Bacteria growing at alkaline ph is

  1. lactobacillus
  2. vibrio
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. all the others are right

Ans (2)

7. Contact dermatitis is

  1. Type I Hypersensitivity
  2. Type II Hypersensitivity
  3. Type III Hypersensitivity
  4. Type IV Hypersensitivity

Ans (4)

8. In DiGeorge syndrome, there is the impaired development of

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. Plasma Cells
  4. Nk cells

Ans (1)

9. Capnophilic bacteria is

  1. Brucella abortus
  2. Brucella melitensis
  3. Brucella suits
  4. Brucella canis

Ans (1)

10. An infant with DiGeorge syndrome is at increased risk of bacterial, viral and fungal infections due to deficiency of

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. Plasma cells
  4. Nk cells

Ans (1)

11. Transfer factor is the transfer of CMI and it is obtained from

  1. Leukocytes
  2. RBC
  3. Platelets
  4. Stem cells

Ans (1)

12. Phage typing is used for all except

  1. vibrio cholerae
  2. shigella
  3. salmonella
  4. staph aureus

Ans (2)

13. Deficiency of complement components C5 – C8 results in

  1. Hereditary angioneurotic edema
  2. Serious pyogenic infections
  3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
  4. Glomerulonephritis

Ans ()

14. The smallest unit of antigen

  1. Hapten
  2. Epitope
  3. Paratope
  4. Idiotope

Ans (2)

15. MCH – 1 is not expressed in

  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. Macrophage
  4. Neurons
    1. Ans()

16. Features of Di George syndrome are A/E

  1. Tetany
  2. Congenital heart disease
  3. Thymic dysplasia
  4. Esophageal atresia
    1.  Ans(4)

17. All are disorders of phagocytosis except

  1. Nezlof syndrome
  2. Lazy leukocyte syndrome
  3. Schwarzman’s disease
  4. Tuftsin deficiency
    1. Ans(1)

18. True regarding complement are A/E

  1. Nonspecific serological reactant
  2. Heat-labile
  3. Binds t antigen-antibody complex
  4. At the site of antigen-antibody complex it binds to antigen
    1. Ans(4)

19. Acute phase reactant is

  1. C1
  2. C2
  3. C3
  4. C7
    1. Ans(3)

20. Ig involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction

  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE
    1. Ans(4)

21. IgE receptors are present on the surface of the following cells that mount allergic response to worm infestations

  1. mast cells
  2. T cells
  3. B cells
  4. NK cells
    1. Ans(1)

22. Generalized edema, flushing, sweating, following a test dose of a drug is mediated by

  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgM
  4. IgG
    1. Ans(2)

23. True about passive immunity – all except

  1. No latency
  2. No negative phase
  3. No memory
  4. No applicable in immune deficiency
    1. Ans(4)

24. A single dose can cause hypersensitivity in

  1. Atrophy
  2. Anaphylaxis
  3. Serum sickness
  4. Contact dermatitis

Ans (2)

25. Ig that participates in precipitation reaction

  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgE
    1. Ans(1)

26. IL – 2 is secreted by

  1. B-Lymphocytes
  2. T-lymphocytes
  3. Mast cells
  4. Macrophages
    1. Ans(2)

27. Only Lg that crosses placenta

  1. IgE
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgG
    1. Ans(4)

28. Syngenetic graft is

  1. Graft from the person
  2. Graft from an identical unrelated
  3. Same species, genetically unrelated
  4. Graft from different species
    1. Ans(2)

29. Operation theaters are sterilized by

  1. Formaldehyde gas
  2. Ethylene oxide
  3. Carbolic acid
  4. Chlorine gas
    1. Ans(1)

30. Adjuvant

  1. Enhances immunogenicity of antigen
  2. Inhibits immune response
  3. Neutralizes antigen
  4. Prolongs shelf life
    1. Ans(1)

31. Local immunity is provided by

  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgD
    1. Ans(2)

32. Rheumatoid factor is an antibody directed against Fc fragment of

  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgD
    1. Ans(1)

33. Example of cell-mediated hypersensitivity

  1. Transfusion reactions
  2. Arthus reactions
  3. Type II lepra reaction
  4. tuberculin test
    1. Ans(4)

34. Helper T cell recognize

  1. MHC class I
  2. MHC class II
  3. Both
  4. Does not recognize MHC
    1. Ans(2)

35. Rust disease is due to

  1. Hypogammaglobulinemia
  2. Graft versus host reaction
  3. Autoimmunity
  4. Immunosuppression
    1. Ans(2)

36. Genetic material is transferred by a bacteriophage in

  1. Conjugation
  2. Transformation
  3. Transduction
  4. Transcription
    1. Ans(3)

37. Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to deficiency of

  1. C1 C2 C4
  2. C5 to C8
  3. C9
  4. C1 esterase inhibitor
    1. Ans(4)

38. Tuberculin test is an example of

  1. Type I hypersensitivity
  2. Type II hypersensitivity
  3. Type III hypersensitivity
  4. Type IV hypersensitivity
    1. Ans(4)

39. Example of Type I hypersensitivity rxn

  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Arthus reaction
  3. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  4. Contact dermatitis
    1. Ans(3)

40. Coomb’s test is a

  1. Slide agglutination test
  2. Antiglobulin test
  3. CFT
  4. Precipitin test
    1. Ans(2)

41. In agammaglobulinemia, defect is in

  1. B cells
  2. T cells
  3. B cells precursors
  4. T cell precursor
    1. Ans(3)

42. The most abundant complement in human

  1. C2
  2. C3
  3. C4
  4. C5
    1. Ans(2)

43. Rose Waaler test is a

  1. Slide agglutination
  2. Passive agglutination
  3. Slide flocculation
  4. Tub flocculation
    1. Ans(2)

44. Antigen combining site of the antibody

  1. Isotope
  2. Epitope
  3. Idiotope
  4. Paratope
    1. Ans(4)

45. Exocrine secretion contains

  1. IgG
  2. IgA
  3. IgM
  4. IgD
    1. Ans(2)

46. IL – 2 was previously called as

  1. T-cell growth factor
  2. B -cell  growth factor
  3. Macrophage growth factor
  4. Fibroblast growth factor
    1. Ans(1)

47. In immediate hypersensitivity, the mediators are secreted form stored granules of

  1. Eosinophils
  2. Basophils
  3. Mast cells
  4. Monocytes
    1. Ans(3)

48. Cell-mediated immunity is by

  1. B cells
  2. T cells
  3. NK cells
  4. Macrophages
    1. Ans(2)

49. Endoscopes are sterilized by

  1. Autoclave
  2. Cetrimide
  3. 2 % glutaraldehyde
  4. Gamma – radiation
    1. Ans(3)

50. Heart-lung  machines are best sterilized by

  1. Acridine dyes
  2. Ethylene oxide gas
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. 100 % alcohol
    1. Ans(2)

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